Anatomy and Physiology Final test with answers

Anatomy and Physiology Final test with answer keys:

1. Which of the following is not an anatomical direction?

A. Supine Correct Body position Prone

B. Proximal / Distal

C. Medial / Lateral

D. Anterior / Posterior

2. Anatomy is defined as the study of the

A. function of a living organism and its parts. Physiology

B. diseases of a living organism. Pathology

C. structure of a living organism and the relationship of its parts. Correct

D. growth of a living organism. Embryology / Developmental Biological

Science

3. The smallest living unit of structure and function in the body is

A. the organic compounds. Large complex molecules, C-C&C-H covalent

bonds

B. the cell. Correct

C. DNA. An organic compound.

D. organelles. Cellular structures that function for cellular

homeostasis.

4. The plane that divides the body into front and back portions is the

A. sagittal plane. / Left and Right

B. transverse plane. / superior and inferior (up and down)

C. frontal plane. Correct

D. midsagittal plane. / equal two halves left and right

5. A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, nitrogen base, and a

phosphate bond is a

A. protein. / Building blocks = Amino Acids (20). E.g. collagen, actin,

myosin, prolactin, T4.

B. lipid. / Building blocks = fatty acids & Glycerol. E.g.Triglycerides,

Cholesterol, Phospholipids.

C. carbohydrate. / Building blocks = monosaccharides. E.g. glucose,

fructose, galactose. Disaccharides e.g. maltose (bread, rye, wheat,

caraway), lactose (milk), sucrose (table sugar = sugarcanes, honey,

fruits). Polysaccharides e.g. starch.

D. nucleic acid. / RNA (Ribose, Uracil), DNA (Deoxyribose,Thymine) Correct

6. A chemical bond formed by the sharing of one or more pairs of electrons between

the outer shells of two atoms is called a(n)

A. ionic bond. / attraction of positively and negatively charged

molecules (ions). E.g. Na+ (Cation), Cl- (Anion) donate/receive

electrons

B. hydrogen bond. / weak, holding substances together through

attraction (H+)

C. covalent bond. Correct

D. None of these is correct.

7. The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of

A. protons. Correct

B. neutrons.

C. electrons. / no calculations.

D. Both A and B are correct. / Atomic mass = protons + neutrons.

8. Which of these lipids are found in the cell membrane? / bilayer of

phospholipids, heads = outwards, tails = inwards.

A. Triglycerides / Blood, adipose tissue, lacteals, liver, and brain.

B. Phospholipids. / Building blocks = phosphate group (head, water)+

two fatty acids (tails, lipids).

C. Cholesterol / stabilizes the phospholipids, maintains the integrity

of cell membrane.

D. Both B and C are correct. Correct

9. The two processes of protein synthesis are

A. transcription and translation. Correct

B. replication and duplication. / DNA during mitosis and meiosis

(cellular reproduction).

C. transcription and replication. / genes are inactive!!!

D. translation and duplication.

10. Often referred to as the “power plant” of the cell, this organelle is the site of ATP

production.

A. Endoplasmic reticulum / protein processing and folding + maintains

and replace cell membrane.

B. Peroxisome / vesicles that contain hydrogen peroxide => destroy

bacteria (TB, Pneumococcus, and meningococcus).

C. Lysosome / vesicle contains lytic enzymes => destroy microbes.

D. Mitochondria Correct

11. This process is the movement of water and solutes through a membrane by the

force of hydrostatic pressure. / Kidneys

A. Osmosis / movement of water

B. Filtration Correct

C. Diffusion / down gradient [particles moving from high

concentration to low concentration] PASSIVE.

D. Pinocytosis / cells digest fluids and other substances ACTIVE =>

use of ATP e.g. Na/K pump.

12. Spindle fibers form during this phase of mitosis.

A. Prophase Correct

B. Anaphase / Chromosomes are formed

C. Telophase / daughter cells formed

D. Metaphase / chromosomes align in the middle

13. This type of epithelial tissue would be found in the wall of the urinary bladder.

A. Stratified squamous / GIT (mouth, esophagus), Skin (Keratinized).

B. Cuboidal / kidneys, salivary glands, thyroid gland, pancreas.

C. Stratified transitional Correct

D. Simple columnar / stomach, small intestines, Upper respiratory

airways ciliated Pseudostratified columnar.

14. Stratified squamous epithelial cells are found in the

A. skin. Correct

B. lining of the trachea. / ciliated pseudostratified columnar

C. kidney tubules. / cuboidal

D. urinary bladder. / stratified transitional

15. This type of epithelial tissue is found in the air sacs of the lung.

A. Simple squamous /single layer and flat allows gas exchange Correct

B. Striated squamous / NA

C. Columnar

D. Cuboidal

16. This type of epithelial tissue has adapted to a secretory function and forms

clusters of cells called glands.

A. Squamous epithelium

B. Stratified squamous epithelium / skin

C. Cuboidal epithelium / thyroid, salivary glands, pancreas. Correct

D. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium / trachea UR tract

17. The system that includes the skin and its appendages is the

A. integumentary system. Correct

B. endocrine system. / glands => secrete products into blood directly.

C. nervous system. / made of nervous tissue.

D. lymphatic system. / lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, spleen, thymus => immunity, circulation.

8. Kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra can be found in what system?

A. Endocrine / endocrine glands, hypothalamus, thymus

B. Digestive / GIT (primary), Accessory (teeth, tongue, liver,

pancreas, gall bladder).

C. Urinary system Correct

D. Reproductive system / essential organs (gonads), reproductive

tracts (uterine tubes, uterus, vas deferens, epididymis), and accessory

glands (prostate, cowper, bartholine) External genitalia.

19. The vas deferens, prostate, and testes are part of the

A. male reproductive system. Correct

B. female reproductive system. / uterus (uterine tubes), vestibular

glands (bartholine), and ovaries.

C. endocrine system.

D. respiratory system.

20. Alveoli are found in the

A. digestive system.

B. respiratory system. / lungs Correct

C. lymphatic system.

D. urinary system.

21. The tonsils, thymus, and spleen are specialized organs of what system?

A. Endocrine / thyroid, adrenal, pituitary, pancreatic islets

B. Cardiovascular / heart, blood vessels

C. Urinary / kidneys, urinary bladder, ureters, urethera.

D. Lymphatic Correct

22. Of the following, which best describes the process of hyperplasia?

A. Abnormal, undifferentiated tumor cells / Anaplasia

B. Production of too few cells / Hypoplasia

C. Production of too many cells / Number of cells Correct

D. “Cancer genes” / oncogenes

23. The actual pattern of a disease’s development is called its

A. pathogenesis. / How? Correct

B. etiology. / causes of disease (factors causing disease) Why?

C. sign. / objective manifestation of disease

D. symptom. / subjective manifestation of disease

24. The most significant strategy for combating disease is

A. therapy. / antibiotics, antihypertensives, ……………

B. diagnoses. /

C. prevention. / e.g. contact precautions, vaccines, risk factors

modifications, genetic counseling.

D. Both A and C are correct. Correct

25. Microscopic organisms that include bacteria, fungi, and protozoa are called

A. viruses. / microbes, different from bacteria, fungi, protozoa

B. microbes. Correct

C. pathogens. / microbes, chemicals, waste, toxins.

D. platyhelminths. / flat worms.

26. The movement of white blood cells in response to chemical attractants is called

A. phagocytosis. / ingestions of microbes

B. pinocytosis.

C. chemotaxis. Correct

D. cachexia. / abnormal weight loss and loss of appetite in cancer

patients (muscle wasting).

27. The skin is composed of the following layers of tissue.

A. Epidermis and subcutaneous / subcutaneous fat is underneath the

dermis.

B. Epidermis and dermis / ectoderm (epidermis), mesoderm

(dermis) Correct

C. Dermis and subcutaneous

D. Hypodermis, epidermis, and subcutaneous

28. A typical sunburn would be classified as what degree of burn?

A. First-degree / protection => melanin, albinism Correct

B. Second-degree / burn through the epidermis and dermis => painful

C. Third-degree / complete burn of dermis => painless (nerve endings

destruction)

D. It depends on the amount of skin surface involved. / classifications of

burns the rule of 9s.

29. A tough, waterproof material that protects the outer layer of the skin is

A. mucus. / produced by mucous membranes

B. keratin. / absorbing and losing fluids Correct

C. melanin.

D. pigment.

30. The basic determinant of skin color is

A. keratin.

B. mucus.

C. melanin. / melanocytes Correct

D. tyrosine. / phenylalanine (deficiency is Phenylketonuria)=>

tyrosine => melanin.

31. An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral

density and increased bone fragility is

A. neoplasms. / cancer.

B. Paget disease. / bone disease of the elderly where osteoclasts are

hyperactive.

C. osteoporosis. / women menopausal, and elderly Correct

D. osteomalacia. / vit D deficiency in adults (vit D deficiency in

children Rickets).

32. Most bones of the body are formed from cartilage models in a process called

A. intramembranous ossification. / flat bones e.g. frontal, occipital,

parietal, temporal (skull bones)

B. osteogenesis. / formation of bones.

C. histogenesis. / formation of tissues (embryonic development).

D. endochondral ossification. / e.g. femur, humorus, tibia, fibula, ulna,

radius. Correct

33. Which of these is not a bone in the lower extremity?

A. Metacarpals / located in the hands Correct

B. Femur / thigh bone

C. Fibula / shatter bone

D. Tibia / leg bone

34. Bone-forming cells are called

A. osteoclasts. / bone resorption (destroying bone)

B. osteons. / haversian systems.

C. osteoblasts. Correct

D. osteocytes. / calcified bone cells.

35. Cartilage cells are called

A. osteocytes.

B. chondrocytes. Correct

C. lacunae. / are part of osteons

D. osteons

36. The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the

A. actin. / protein part of sarcomere

B. myosin. / protein part of sarcomere

C. myofibril. / muscle cell

D. sarcomere. Correct

37. The orbicularis oris (oral) muscle can be found in the (orbicularis oculi => oculi

eye)

A. face. / mouth Correct

B. upper arm. / deltoid, triceps brachii, biceps brachii.

C. cranium. / temporalis

D. lower leg. / gastrocnemius, anterior tibialis.

38. The point of attachment that does not move when the muscle contracts is the

A. insertion. / point of attachment that MOVES when muscle

contracts.

B. tendon. / fibrous tissue that connects muscles to bones.

C. ligament./ fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone (found

around joints)

D. origin. Correct

39. The following are types of muscle contractions except

A. kinetic. / this is physics Correct

B. Tetanic / abnormal continuous muscle contractions (tetanus).

C. isotonic.

D. isometric.

40. The large fluid-filled spaces within the brain are called the

A. meninges. / coverings of the CNS.

B. sulci. / grooves in the cerebrum

C. gyri. / elevations in the cerebrum.

D. ventricles. / four (two lateral, third, fourth) Correct

41. The nervous system is divided into which two principal divisions?

A. Peripheral and central / cranial nerves PNS, brain and spinal cord

CNS Correct

B. Autonomic and central / sympathetic and parasympathetic

C. Autonomic and peripheral

D. Central and afferent / afferent => advance to & efferent => exit

from (Spinal cord).

42. The innermost layer of the meninges is the

A. pia mater. / at the surface of the brain and spinal cord. Correct

B. dura mater. / outer most layer of the meninges. Tough, white in

color.

C. arachnoid layer./ middle layer of the meninges (subarachnoid

space).

D. choroid plexus. / vascular capillaries found in ventricles =>

production of CSF.

43. Which glia cell produces the myelin that envelops the nerve fibers of the brain

and spinal cord (CNS)?

A. Astrocytes / supports neurons, and forms BBB by anchoring blood

vessels.

B. Microglia / immune cells in the CNS.

C. Oligodendrocytes / in PNS myelin production is done by Schwann

cell. Correct

D. Choroid plexus

44. The organ of hearing is the

A. eardrum. / external ear (otitis externa, swimmer’s ear).

B. organ of Corti / inner ear, cochlea. Correct

C. semicircular canals. /inner ear, vestibule

D. crista ampullaris. / important balance.

45. This is not part of the inner ear. / 8th cranial nerve (vestibulocochlear nerve)

A. Eustachian tube / middle ear => connects to pharynx (pharyngitis

can lead to otitis media in children). Correct

B. Vestibule

C. Semicircular canal

D. Cochlea

46. After leaving the eye, the optic nerve enters the brain and travels to the visual

cortex in this lobe of the brain.

A. The frontal / movement, memory, thinking, judgement.

B. The parietal / sensation, comprehension, taste

C. The occipital Correct

D. The temporal / hearing

47. The white of the eye is called the (yellow sclera => jaundice) (blue sclera

=> Osteogenesis imperfecta)

A. pupil. / the dark spot of the eye (opening)

B. iris. / responsible for fixation of light rays, eye color

(melanocytes).

C. sclera. Correct

D. cornea. / transparent

48. The following are the primary taste sensations except

A. sweet.

B. salty.

C. sour.

D. spicy. Correct

49. Most hormones work on a negative feedback mechanism; an exception to this is

the hormone

A. insulin. / glucagon

B. oxytocin. / labor Correct

C. calcitonin. / parathyroid hormone

D. glucagon. / insulin

50. This hormone decreases the calcium levels in the blood.

A. Thymosin / maturation of t lymphocytes

B. Prolactin / production of milk.

C. Parathyroid hormone / increases levels of calcium in the blood.

D. Calcitonin Correct

51. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an endocrine gland?

A. They release hormones. / hormones are released directly into the

blood.

B. They have a duct leading to a body cavity. / exocrine gland Correct

C. They have an effect on the cells in a target organ.

D. All of the above are characteristics of an endocrine gland.

52. Which of the following is true of insulin?

A. It increases the level of sugar in the blood. / decreases glucose levels

B. It is made in the beta cells of the pancreas. Correct

C. It accelerates the process of glycogenolysis in the liver. / glycogenesis

D. All of the above are true of insulin.

53. The process stimulated by glucocorticoids that converts amino acids to glucose is

called / glucocorticoids are considered Anabolic hormones

A. glucose synthesis.

B. gluconeogenesis. Correct

C. liver glycogenolysis. / glucagon

D. glycosuria. / glucose found in urine.

54. These two kinds of connective tissue make blood cells for the body.

. Myeloid and lymphatic / lymphatic tissue produces lymphocytes &

myeloid tissue produces granulocytes, monocytes, RBCs, and

platelets Correct

B. Myeloid and bone

C. Myeloid and cartilage

D. Lymphatic and bone

55. This substance does not make up part of the hemoglobin molecule.

A. Iron / forms the heme group, combines with Oxygen and CO2.

B. Calcium / bone, blood (in the form of a compound or bound to

albumin) Correct

C. Two alpha chains / Globin

D. Two beta chains / globin

56. An abnormally low white blood cell count is called

A. leukocytosis. / proliferation of WBCs.

B. leukopenia. / results in low immunity. Correct

C. differential white blood cell count. / part of CBC

D. hemostasis. / stationary blood (still blood).

57. Platelets play an important role in

A. fighting infection. / leukocytes

B. carrying oxygen. / erythrocytes

C. blood clotting. / other component is clotting factors (fibrinogen,

prothrombin) Correct

D. carrying carbon dioxide. / erythrocytes

58. The chordae tendineae are attached to the / part of the ventricle

A. bicuspid valve. / mitral valve (other atrioventricular valve is the

tricuspids valve) Correct

B. pulmonary semilunar valve. / three cups

C. aortic semilunar valve.

D. Both B and C are correct.

59. Another term for “hardening of the arteries” is

A. atherosclerosis. / accumulation of fat deposits in the arterial

walls. Correct

B. embolism. / dislodged clot that moves (thrombus is stationary

clot).

C. angina pectoris. / the pain of heart attack

D. myocardial infarction. / heart attack (complete blockage of blood

flow in the coronary artery)

60. The order in which an impulse passes through the conduction system of the heart

is

A. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, and Purkinje fibers. / SA node is also

called pacemaker of the heart. Correct

B. AV node, AV bundles, SA node, Purkinje fibers.

C. AV bundles, bundle of His, AV node, SA node.

D. Purkinje fibers, SA node, AV node, AV bundles.

61. Cardiac output is determined by (CO = HR x SV)

A. stroke volume and blood pressure.

B. heart rate and blood pressure.

C. heart rate and stroke volume. Correct

D. stroke volume and peripheral resistance.

62. Capillaries are unique because their structure includes only (blood vessels

have three layers = tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica externa)

A. the tunica intima. Correct

B. the tunica intima and the tunica media.

C. the tunica intima and the tunica externa.

D. None of the above is correct because all blood vessels have all three

layers in their structure.

63. This structure in fetal circulation shunts blood away from the immature liver.

A. Umbilical artery / two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein

B. Foramen ovale / shunts blood between atria (right to left).

C. Ductus venosus Correct

D. Ductus arteriosus / connects pulmonary artery with Aorta (shunts

blood from pulmonary to Aorta).

64. A section of an artery that has become abnormally wide because of a weakening

of the arterial wall is called

A. an aneurysm. / Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (rupture), Berry

aneurysm (in the brain). Correct

B. necrosis. / term used to describe cellular and tissue death due to

ischemia

C. arteriosclerosis. / hardening of arterial walls

D. ischemia. / reduced blood flow to a tissue

65. This structure in fetal circulation connects the aorta and the pulmonary artery.

A. Umbilical artery

B. Foramen ovale

C. Ductus venosus

D. Ducts arteriosus / shunts blood from right to left circulation Correct

60. The order in which an impulse passes through the conduction system of the heart

is

A. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, and Purkinje fibers. / SA node is also

called pacemaker of the heart. Correct

B. AV node, AV bundles, SA node, Purkinje fibers.

C. AV bundles, bundle of His, AV node, SA node.

D. Purkinje fibers, SA node, AV node, AV bundles.

61. Cardiac output is determined by (CO = HR x SV)

A. stroke volume and blood pressure.

B. heart rate and blood pressure.

C. heart rate and stroke volume. Correct

D. stroke volume and peripheral resistance.

62. Capillaries are unique because their structure includes only (blood vessels

have three layers = tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica externa)

A. the tunica intima. Correct

B. the tunica intima and the tunica media.

C. the tunica intima and the tunica externa.

D. None of the above is correct because all blood vessels have all three

layers in their structure.

63. This structure in fetal circulation shunts blood away from the immature liver.

A. Umbilical artery / two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein

B. Foramen ovale / shunts blood between atria (right to left).

C. Ductus venosus Correct

D. Ductus arteriosus / connects pulmonary artery with Aorta (shunts

blood from pulmonary to Aorta).

64. A section of an artery that has become abnormally wide because of a weakening

of the arterial wall is called

A. an aneurysm. / Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (rupture), Berry

aneurysm (in the brain). Correct

B. necrosis. / term used to describe cellular and tissue death due to

ischemia

C. arteriosclerosis. / hardening of arterial walls

D. ischemia. / reduced blood flow to a tissue

65. This structure in fetal circulation connects the aorta and the pulmonary artery.

A. Umbilical artery

B. Foramen ovale

C. Ductus venosus

D. Ducts arteriosus / shunts blood from right to left circulation Correct

The function of the spleen includes all of the following except

A. filtration of bacteria and foreign substances.

B. acting as a reservoir for monocytes.

C. developing T cells. / they develop in Thymus Correct

D. destroying worn-out red blood cells. / splenic rupture leads to

massive internal hemorrhage.

68. An infant having immunity because antibodies are passed from its mother is an

example of

A. natural active immunity. / acquiring an infection and producing

antibodies.

B. natural passive immunity. Correct

C. artificial active immunity. / vaccines

D. artificial passive immunity. / IVIG

69. An excessive reaction of the immune system to antigens from a different

individual from the same species is called

A. alloimmunity. / graft rejection Correct

B. autoimmunity. / self produced antibodies attack self cells and

tissues (SLE)

C. allergy./ an exaggerated immune response to a foreign body

D. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. / AIDS caused by HIV.

70. Which of the following is not part of vital capacity? / vital capacity + residual

volume = Total Lung Capacity.

A. Residual volume / volume of air that remains in the lungs after

forceful expiration Correct

B. Tidal volume

C. Expiratory reserve volume

D. Inspiratory reserve volume

71. Which of the following are functions of the respiratory system?

A. Air distributor / respiratory tracts (upper and lower)

B. Gas exchanger / alveoli

C. Filter air / nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles.

D. All are correct. Correct

72. In internal respiration / at the cellular level = Glycolysis, citric acid cycle,

and electron transport system.

A. the level of oxygen in the blood decreases.

B. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases.

C. the level of carbon dioxide decreases. / happens in the lungs

(External respiration).

D. Both A and B occur during internal respiration. Correct

73. This structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing.

A. The epiglottis / Hbi vaccine prevent epiglottitis. Correct

B. The glottis

C. The vocal cords / larynx

D. The pharynx

74. Which of the following is not a main process of mechanical digestion?

A. Mastication

B. Deglutition

C. Peristalsis

D. Absorption / digestion and excretion Correct

75. Food from the stomach enters this part of the small intestine.

A. Ileum

B. Jejunum

C. Duodenum / connected to stomach pyloric sphnicter Correct

D. Colon

76. Where does protein digestion begin?

A. Duodenum / trypsin

B. Stomach/ pepsin Correct

C. Mouth / carbohydrates digestion = salivary amylase

D. Ileum / where iron, B12 is absorbed

77. The first series of reactions in carbohydrate metabolism is (38 ATP)

A. the citric acid cycle. / second step, uses oxygen, mitochondria

B. glycolysis. / 2 ATP, no Oxyegn, cytoplasm Correct

C. the electron transport system. / 36 ATP

D. oxidative phosphorylation.

8. When fats are not needed for catabolism, they go through anabolism to form

triglycerides that are stored in / this why eating a lot of carbohydrates leads to

obesity.

A. bone.

B. the liver.

C. adipose tissue. Correct

D. all cells.

79. This disorder is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. / enzyme

deficiency that converts phenylalanine to tyrosine

A. Phenylketonuria Correct

B. Marasmus / malnutrition

C. Kwashiorkor / malnutrition

D. Both B and C are examples of inborn errors of metabolism.

80. The principal organ of the urinary system is the

A. liver.

B. bladder.

C. kidney. / filteration, reabsorption, excretion, secretion Correct

D. urethra.

81. The passage of urine from the body or the emptying of the bladder is referred to

as

A. incontinence. / bladder disease that results in abnormal urination

B. micturition. / voiding, urination Correct

C. urinary suppression.

D. urinary retention.

82. The tiny, funnel-shaped microscopic structure of the kidney responsible for

producing urine is the

A. glomeruli.

B. nephron. / corpuscle and tubule Correct

C. renal corpuscle. / bowman capsule and glomerus

D. renal tubule. / proximal tubule, loop of henle, distal tubule,

collecting duct

83. The cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus function to regulate

A. urine production.

B. red blood cell production.

C. blood pressure. / between the Efferent arteriole and distal

convoluted tubule (ACEi). Correct

D. Both A and B are correct.

84. A blood potassium level of more than 5.1 mEq/L would be called

A. hyponatremia.

B. hypokalemia.

C. hyperkalemia. Correct

D. hypercalcemia.

85. A sodium level less than 136 mEq/L would be called

A. hyponatremia. Correct

B. hypokalemia.

C. hyperkalemia.

D. hypercalcemia.

86. The body’s last and best defense against wide variations in blood pH is the

A. liver.

B. lungs.

C. interstitial fluid.

D. kidneys. / third line of defense Correct

87. The accumulation of these acidic substances is a result of excessive metabolism

of fats.

A. Buffers

B. H+

C. Ketone bodies / this happens in Diabetes Mellitus type 1

(Diabeticketoacidosis). Correct Diabetic Ketoacidosis

D. CO2

88. The essential organ (gonads) of reproduction in women is the

A. uterus.

B. ovary. / in males it is the testes. Correct

C. vagina.

D. All are essential organs of reproduction.

89. The sperm precursors or stem cells are called

A. spermatogonia. Correct

B. primary spermatocyte.

C. stem spermatocytes.

D. spermatids.

90. What is the structure that connects the epididymis with the ejaculatory duct?

A. Cowper gland

B. Urethra

C. Vas deferens / it ends in seminal vesicle Correct

D. Seminal vesicle

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